Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 07:59
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What thing happened to you as a child that you haven’t let go of to this day?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why was Boromir corrupted by the One Ring, but not Faramir in The Lord of the Rings?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why, after a divorce, would one still want to ruin the other one’s life?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.